Which of the following most accurately describes The Federalist Papers?

Which of the following most accurately describes The Federalist Papers?

A) the Federalist party platform during the presidency of John Adam, the first Federalist president
B) a popular anti-British booklet of the pre-revolutionary era
C) a collection of essays arguing the merits of the Constitution
D) a series of congressional acts defining the relationship between the federal and state governments
E) the laws under which the South was governed during the Reconstruction







Answer: C

All of the following were Anti-Federalist arguments against the ratification of the Constitution EXCEPT:

All of the following were Anti-Federalist arguments against the ratification of the Constitution EXCEPT:

A) a charge that it was a class-based document
B) a claim that it would weaken the power of the states
C) a charge that it was a betrayal of the American Revolution
D) a charge that it would benefit creditors
E) a claim that the Bill of Rights was unnecessary







Answer: E

How did the Antifederalists differ from the Federalists?

How did the Antifederalists differ from the Federalists?

A) the Antifederalists wanted a stronger central government
B) the Federalists wanted to protect state sovereignty
C) the Antifederalists had a more positive view of human nature
D) the Antifederalists believed that a strong central government would be too distant from the people
E) the Antifederalists were opposed to representative democracy






Answer: D

The __________, offered as one possible scheme at the Constitutional Convention, called for each state to be equally represented in Congress

The __________, offered as one possible scheme at the Constitutional Convention, called for each state to be equally represented in Congress

A) New Jersey Plan
B) Three-Fifths Compromise
C) Northwest Ordinance
D) Virginia Plan
E) Connecticut Compromise







Answer: A

Which of the following is argued by James Madison in The Federalist paper number 10?

Which of the following is argued by James Madison in The Federalist paper number 10?

A) the elimination of the causes of factionalism is the best protection against tyranny
B) a system of republican representation helps to limit the excesses of factionalism
C) small republics are better able to ensure individual liberty than are large republics
D) the presence of a few large factions helps protect the rights of the minorities
E) participatory democracy is the surest way to prevent tyranny









Answer: B

Which of the following is filled when an imprisoned person wants to be brought before a judge so the judge can determine whether his or her imprisonment is legal?

Which of the following is filled when an imprisoned person wants to be brought before a judge so the judge can determine whether his or her imprisonment is legal?

A) Habeas corpus petition
B) Bill of attainder
C) Amicus curiae brief
D) Writ of certiorari
E) Ex post facto





Answer: A

Evidence that the framers of the Constitution may have distrusted the common people is

Evidence that the framers of the Constitution may have distrusted the common people is

A) Senate approval of presidential appointments
B) money bills are introduced in the House of Representatives
C) the method by which the president is elected
D) the age of citizenship requirements for the Senate
E) the apportionment of seats in the House of Representatives








Answer: C

Which of the following was the most important effect of replacing the Articles of Confederation with the Constitution of 1787?

Which of the following was the most important effect of replacing the Articles of Confederation with the Constitution of 1787?

A) the protection of free speech
B) the guarantee of states' rights
C) the establishment of direct democracy
D) the creation of a strong national government
E) the establishment of judicial review







Answer: D

Which of the following is true under the system of checks and balances?

Which of the following is true under the system of checks and balances?

A) the Supreme Court can overrule the President's policy proposals
B) the Senate must ratify treaties negotiated by the President before they become law
C) a bill becomes a law when the House and the Senate pass, and the Supreme Court declares unconstitutional
D) the Supreme Court can remove members of Congress, and Congress can impeach the President
E) the House of Representatives appoints justices to the Supreme Court and the Senate approves the appointments








Answer: B

The reserved powers of the state governments can best be described as those powers

The reserved powers of the state governments can best be described as those powers

A) not specifically granted to the national government or denied to the states
B) implied in the Fifth Amendment
C) listed specifically in the Tenth Amendment
D) exercised by both national and state governments
E) granted to states as part of the implied powers doctrine






Answer: A

Which of the following is an example of checks and balances, as established by the Constitution?

Which of the following is an example of checks and balances, as established by the Constitution?

A) a requirement that states lower their drinking age to eighteen as a condition of receiving funds through federal highway grant programs
B) media criticism of public officials during an election campaign period
C) the Supreme Court's ability to overturn a lower court decision
D) the requirement that presidential appointments to the Supreme Court be approved by the Senate
E) the election of the President by the electoral college rather than by direct election







Answer: D

The Constitution prohibits the states from doing all of the following EXCEPT

The Constitution prohibits the states from doing all of the following EXCEPT

A) determining qualifications for voting
B) coining money
C) imposing tariffs on goods from foreign countries
D) giving sanctuary to runaway slaves
E) granting titles of nobility









Answer: A

Which of the following statements best characterize the attitudes of the framers of the Constitution toward slavery?

Which of the following statements best characterize the attitudes of the framers of the Constitution toward slavery?

A) they were all slave owners and determined to preserve slavery
B) they supported the expansion of slavery beyond the thirteen states
C) there was sentiment to limit slavery, but political considerations made that impossible
D) they believed that if slavery was not mentioned, ratification would be harder
E) they preferred the gradual emancipation of all slaves






Answer: C

The purpose of the system of checks and balances in the Constitution is to ensure that

The purpose of the system of checks and balances in the Constitution is to ensure that

A) the federal courts are independent
B) the president has the power to control Congress
C) the military is under civilian control
D) one branch does not dominate the others
E) Congress has a role in foreign policy






Answer: D

An election involving more than two candidates in which the person who receives the most votes is the winner is called

An election involving more than two candidates in which the person who receives the most votes is the winner is called

A) a proportional election
B) an indirect election
C) a simple election
D) a majority election
E) a plurality election










Answer: E

Evidence that the framers of the Constitution may have distrusted the common people is

Evidence that the framers of the Constitution may have distrusted the common people is

A) Senate approval of presidential appointments
B) money bills are introduced in the House of Representatives
C) the method by which the president is elected
D) the age and citizenship requirements for the Senate
E) the apportionment of seats in the House of Representatives







Answer: C

The supremacy clause in the Constitution states that

The supremacy clause in the Constitution states that

A) Congress is the most important branch of the government
B) the federal government has more power than the states
C) the armed forces are under the control of civilian authority
D) the Constitution, federal laws, and treaties are the supreme law of the land
E) the president has the supreme power as Commander-in-Chief









Answer: D

Which of the following statement about the relationship between Congress and the Supreme Court is valid?

Which of the following statement about the relationship between Congress and the Supreme Court is valid?

A) Congress can impeach a Supreme Court justice
B) a decision can be overturned by a two-thirds vote of both houses
C) nominations by the Supreme Court must be approved by Congress
D) a constitutional amendment is the only way Congress can overturn a Supreme Court decision
E) Congress can expand the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court through legislation








Answer: A

A law goes into effect declaring that a business practice that has been legal in the past will be illegal in the future, and the law is made retroactive. Why would the Supreme Court likely rule the new law unconstitutional?

A law goes into effect declaring that a business practice that has been legal in the past will be illegal in the future, and the law is made retroactive. Why would the Supreme Court likely rule the new law unconstitutional?

A) it would constitute a bill of attainder
B) it would violate double jeopardy
C) it would be an ex post facto law
D) it would bypass grand jury indictment
E) it would violate the concept of eminent domain








Answer: C

The outcome of a conflict between the Constitution and the states is determined by

The outcome of a conflict between the Constitution and the states is determined by

A) The Great (Connecticut) Compromise
B) The Supremacy clause
C) Federalist Paper No. 10
D) Judicial Review
E) Expost facto laws







Answer: B

Any law passed by legislature that punishes an individual without a trial, under the Constitution, violates the Constitutional concept of

Any law passed by legislature that punishes an individual without a trial, under the Constitution, violates the Constitutional concept of 

A) a bill of attainder
B) ex post facto
C) double jeopardy
D) eminent domain
E) habeas corpus





Answer: A

The Three-Fifths Compromise at the Constitutional Convention

The Three-Fifths Compromise at the Constitutional Convention

A) allowed cloture to be invoked, ending a filibuster in the Senate, with the support of all Senators
B) prescribed the proportion of states required to ratify a constitutional amendment
C) provided a formula by which slaves would be counted for apportioning the House of Representatives
D) established the percentage of votes necessary for electors to be chosen under the original provisions of the Electoral College system
E) established the percentage of members of the House required to pass a bill raising revenue







Answer: C

What is the basis of James Madison's argument in the Federalist Paper No. 10?

What is the basis of James Madison's argument in the Federalist Paper No. 10?

A) the government can eliminate the causes of faction
B) factions are dangerous and must be destroyed
C) political parties should be encouraged to form so that all viewpoints are represented
D) a balanced government can control factions and prevent one faction from gaining too much power
E) state government will prevent factions from forming








Answer: D

The Constitution's writers carefully drafted a document that would create

The Constitution's writers carefully drafted a document that would create

A) strong states and a weak central government
B) the ability to adapt to changing time
C) weakened power in the state and national government
D) a dominant national government with no active participation from the states
E) an equal distribution of power between the states and national government







Answer: B

Which of the following is NOT a criticism of separation of powers?

Which of the following is NOT a criticism of separation of powers?

A) it creates gridlock in policy-making
B) it makes it difficult for the government to act decisively in times of crisis
C) it results in prompt, but hasty, decision-making
D) it makes it difficult to stimulate economic growth
E) it damages our position of international leadership







Answer: C

James Madison believed that various groups, or factions would compete within our democratic system. The result would be effective policy-making. Madison's theory can best be described as

James Madison believed that various groups, or factions would compete within our democratic system. The result would be effective policy-making. Madison's theory can best be described as

A) hyperpluralism
B) Marxism
C) bureaucratic elitism
D) pluralism
E) elitism






Answer: D

How does the Constitution provide an executive check on the judicial branch?

How does the Constitution provide an executive check on the judicial branch?

A) by allowing the president to remove Supreme Court justices from office
B) by permitting bureaucrats to ignore a decision of the Supreme Court
C) by nominating federal judges, subject to Senate confirmation
D) by appointing federal judges
E) by allowing the president to propose a bill to Congress to overturn a decision by the Supreme





Court

Under the original Constitution, which branch or branches of government were selected directly by the citizens?

Under the original Constitution, which branch or branches of government were selected directly by the citizens?

I. the president and the vice-president
II. the Supreme Court
III. the Senate
IV. the House of Representatives






Answer: IV

What was the result of the Connecticut (Great) Compromise?

What was the result of the Connecticut (Great) Compromise?

A) States were represented in the upper house, and individuals were represented in the lower house
B) All members of Congress were selected by direct election
C) individuals were given proportional representation in both the House and the Senate
D) individuals were represented in the upper house, and states were represented in the lower house
E) slaves were not counted in the census









Answer: A

The president nominates Supreme Court justices, who must be confirmed by the Senate. Once appointed, those justices usually serve for life terms. This is an example of which of the following (more than one answer)

The president nominates Supreme Court justices, who must be confirmed by the Senate. Once appointed, those justices usually serve for life terms. This is an example of which of the following (more than one answer)

I. separation of powers
II. federalism
III. checks and balances
IV. judicial review





Answer: I and III

The system of checks and balances in the Constitution means that

The system of checks and balances in the Constitution means that 

A) a majority can easily manipulate the system, but a minority cannot
B) changes in government policy can be made with relative ease, with few obstacles to stop a popular new force
C) we have a direct democracy, with all branches equally accessible to strong public pressure
D) change usually comes slowly, if at all, and moderation and compromise are typical in our political system
E) each branch of government has its own powers independent of the other







Answer: D

Which of the following statements best describes most of the Founding Fathers?

Which of the following statements best describes most of the Founding Fathers?

A) they were older, wealthy, and very experienced politicians
B) they were relatively young, wealthy, and well- educated
C) they were representative of the population as a whole
D) they were radicals who favored states' rights and the protection of individual liberties
E) they were young and inexperienced








Answer: B

Which of the following constitutional principles most directly addresses the relationship between the national and state governments?

Which of the following constitutional principles most directly addresses the relationship between the national and state governments?

A) Federalism
B) The Bill of Rights
C) Separation of Powers
D) Representation
E) Checks and Balances








Answer: A

What is the result of the Connecticut (Great) Compromise?

What is the result of the Connecticut (Great) Compromise?

A) both the House and the Senate directly represent the population as a whole
B) the House represents the interests of the states, while the Senate represents individuals within the district
C) the Senate represents state interests, while the House mirrors the population proportionally
D) the electoral college vote does not always mirror the popular vote
E) large states have more power in the Senate than small states







Answer: C

Which of the following Founders was the "principal architect" of the Constitution?

Which of the following Founders was the "principal architect" of the Constitution?

A) Edmund Randolph
B) George Washington
C) Thomas Jefferson
D) Alexander Hamilton
E) James Madison









Answer: E

The importance of Shay's Rebellion to the development of the U.S. Constitution was that it

The importance of Shay's Rebellion to the development of the U.S. Constitution was that it

A) revealed the necessity of both adding the Bill of Rights to the Constitution and creating a new system of checks and balances
B) indicated that a strong, constitutionally designed national government was needed to protect property and maintain order
C) convinced that delegates attending the Constitutional Convention to accept the Connecticut Plan
D) reinforced the idea that slavery should be outlawed in the new Constitution
E) demonstrated the intensity of antiratification sentiment within the thirteen states





Answer: B

All of the following issues were decided at the Constitutional Convention EXCEPT:

All of the following issues were decided at the Constitutional Convention EXCEPT:

A) representation in the legislature
B) method of electing the President
C) voting qualifications of the electorate
D) congressional powers to override a presidential veto
E) qualifications for members of the House and Senate






Answer: C

A representative democracy is justified by all of the following characteristics except that

A representative democracy is justified by all of the following characteristics except that

A) the people have limited information and expertise
B) the people cannot choose among competing leadership groups
C) the people may decide large issues on the basis of fleeting passions
D) the people may respond to popular demagogues
E) direct democracy is impractical







Answer: B

Interest groups and political parties both promote U.S. democracy by

Interest groups and political parties both promote U.S. democracy by

A) expressing detailed, ideologically distinct programs
B) centralizing public authority
C) linking citizens to the political process
D) increasing domination of the political process
E) lobbying members of Congress









Answer: C

What was the biggest problem with the Articles of Confederation?

What was the biggest problem with the Articles of Confederation?

A) the national government imposed heavy taxes on the wealthy
B) the states did not have enough power
C) the national government did not have the power to regulate intrastate commerce
D) individual states could not control their economies
E) the national government could not lay and collect taxes






Answer: E

Under America's first constitution, the Articles of Confederation,

Under America's first constitution, the Articles of Confederation,

A) the national government dominated state governments
B) the executive branch had more power than Congress
C) Congress was a unicameral body
D) states were represented in Congress proportionally according to population
E) reflected the Founding Father's belief that a national standing army was necessary







Answer: C

According to the pluralist theorists, which of the following (can be more than one) statements describe the American political system?

According to the pluralist theorists, which of the following (can be more than one) statements describe the American political system?

I. the public interest is normally served in the U.S. through the process of bargaining and compromise
II. organized interest groups fairly shape the public agenda by broadly representing the interests of Americans
III. multiple small groups among the wealthiest one percent of the public are in some way responsible for most policymaking
IV. Policymaking reflects the desire of those who control many of the largest corporations in the U.S.



Answer: I and II

The debates between Federalists and Anti-Federalists were primarily about which of the following issues?

The debates between Federalists and Anti-Federalists were primarily about which of the following issues?

A) the right of the people to rebel
B) the scope and power of the central government
C) the existence of slavery
D) the need to establish a standard currency
E) the representation of large and small states







Answer: B

All of the following were concerns about the Articles of Confederation that led to the calling of the Constitutional Convention of 1787 EXCEPT

All of the following were concerns about the Articles of Confederation that led to the calling of the Constitutional Convention of 1787 EXCEPT

A) dissatisfaction over safeguards of individual rights and liberties
B) fear for the stability of the central government
C) desire to promote trade among states
D) the need to give the central government the power to levy taxes
E) dissatisfaction with the central government's ability to provide for national defense








Answer: A

All of the following were weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation EXCEPT

All of the following were weaknesses of the Articles of Confederation EXCEPT

A) the national government had too much power
B) the national government could not resolve state boundary disputes
C) currency was not accepted outside of local areas
D) the military could not put down even small rebellions
E) there was no national judicial system








Answer: A

The idea of limiting the role of government to protect "life, liberty, and property" is generally attributed to

The idea of limiting the role of government to protect "life, liberty, and property" is generally attributed to

A) Karl Marx
B) Thomas Jefferson
C) Thomas Hobbes
D) John Locke
E) Alexander Hamilton







Answer: D

Which of the following statements about the Declaration of Independence is correct?

Which of the following statements about the Declaration of Independence is correct?

A) it was written primarily by George Washington and James Madison
B) It was an important innovation in political philosophy
C) it was a rejection of the philosophy of John Locke
D) it drew upon the works of Thomas Hobbes
E) it was a lawyer's brief justifying a revolution







Answer: E

Which of the following best illustrates the elite theory?

Which of the following best illustrates the elite theory?

A) The fact that more than 20,000 special interest groups lobby Congress each year
B) the idea that because of mass media, Americans are increasingly isolated from their government, jeopardizing the strength of traditional groups in society
C) The idea that contending interests are so strong within the United States that government is often weakened
D) the idea that large interest groups dominate government decision-making
E) The idea that a small group of wealthy individuals dominate government policy-making









Answer: E

The system of governance set up in the Constitutional Republic tends to:

The system of governance set up in the Constitutional Republic tends to:

A) be rather efficient in producing political results
B) encourage direct democracy
C) Centralize power
D) Favor the status quo as opposed to political change
E) represent an unwritten accumulation of tradition and precedents









Answer: D

Which characteristic of American politics is concerned with the rights of the minority?

Which characteristic of American politics is concerned with the rights of the minority?

A) the election process
B) the Congressional policy-making process
C) interest group bargaining and compromising on political issues
D) the president altering his policy proposals in response to public opinion
E) the Bill of Rights guarantee of civil liberties








Answer: E

An auditor had expressed a qualified opinion on the financial statements of a prior period because of the client's financial statements departed from generally accepted accounting principles. The prior-period statements are restated in the current period to conform with generally accepted accounting principles. The auditor's updated report on the prio-period statements should

An auditor had expressed a qualified opinion on the financial statements of a prior period because of the client's financial statements departed from generally accepted accounting principles. The prior-period statements are restated in the current period to conform with generally accepted accounting principles. The auditor's updated report on the prio-period statements should

a. Express an unqualified opinion about the restated financial statements.
b. Be accompanied by the auditor's original report on the prior period.
c. Bear the same date as the auditor's original report on the prior period.
d. Qualify the opinion concerning the restated financial statements because of a change in accounting principles.







Answer: A

An auditor is confronted with an exception sufficiently material to warrant departing from the standard wording of an unqualified report. If the exception relates to a departure from generally accepted accounting principles, the auditor must decide between a(n)

An auditor is confronted with an exception sufficiently material to warrant departing from the standard wording of an unqualified report. If the exception relates to a departure from generally accepted accounting principles, the auditor must decide between a(n)

a. Adverse opinion and an unqualified opinion.
b. Adverse opinion and a qualified opinion.
c. Adverse opinion and a disclaimer of opinion.
d. Disclaimer of opinion and a qualified opinion.








Answer: B

An auditor's report on comparative financial statements should be dated as of the date the

An auditor's report on comparative financial statements should be dated as of the date the

a. Report is issued.
b. Auditor's field work is completed.
c. Fiscal year ends.
d. Last subsequent event occurred.








Answer: B

The presence of cholesterol in the plasma membranes of some animals

The presence of cholesterol in the plasma membranes of some animals 

A) enables the membrane to stay fluid more easily when cell temperature drops.
B) enables the animal to remove hydrogen atoms from saturated phospholipids.
C) enables the animal to add hydrogen atoms to unsaturated phospholipids.
D) makes the membrane less flexible, allowing it to sustain greater pressure from within the cell.
E) makes the animal more susceptible to circulatory disorders.






Answer: A

When biological membranes are frozen and then fractured, they tend to break along the middle of the bilayer. The best explanation for this is that

When biological membranes are frozen and then fractured, they tend to break along the middle of the bilayer. The best explanation for this is that 

A) the integral membrane proteins are not strong enough to hold the bilayer together.
B) water that is present in the middle of the bilayer freezes and is easily fractured.
C) hydrophilic interactions between the opposite membrane surfaces are destroyed on freezing.
D) the carbon-carbon bonds of the phospholipid tails are easily broken.
E) the hydrophobic interactions that hold the membrane together are weakest at this point.





Answer: E

Which of the following types of molecules are the major structural components of the cell membrane?

Which of the following types of molecules are the major structural components of the cell membrane? 

A) phospholipids and cellulose
B) nucleic acids and proteins
C) phospholipids and proteins
D) proteins and cellulose
E) glycoproteins and cholesterol





Answer: C

Singer and Nicolson's fluid mosaic model of the membrane proposed that

Singer and Nicolson's fluid mosaic model of the membrane proposed that

A) membranes are a phospholipid bilayer.
B) membranes are a phospholipid bilayer between two layers of hydrophilic proteins.
C) membranes are a single layer of phospholipids and proteins.
D) membranes consist of protein molecules embedded in a fluid bilayer of phospholipids.
E) membranes consist of a mosaic of polysaccharides and proteins.







Answer: D

Some regions of the plasma membrane, called lipid rafts, have a higher concentration of cholesterol molecules. As a result, these lipid rafts

Some regions of the plasma membrane, called lipid rafts, have a higher concentration of cholesterol molecules. As a result, these lipid rafts 

A) are more fluid than the surrounding membrane.
B) are more rigid than the surrounding membrane.
C) are able to flip from inside to outside.
D) detach from the plasma membrane and clog arteries.
E) have higher rates of lateral diffusion of lipids and proteins into and out of the lipid rafts.





Answer: B

Who was/were the first to propose that cell membranes are phospholipid bilayers?

Who was/were the first to propose that cell membranes are phospholipid bilayers? 

A) H. Davson and J. Danielli
B) I. Langmuir
C) C. Overton
D) S. Singer and G. Nicolson
E) E. Gorter and F. Grendel





Answer: E

Which cell would be best for studying lyosomes?

Which cell would be best for studying lyosomes? 

A) muscle cell
B) nerve cell
C) phagocytic white blood cell
D) leaf cell of a plant
E) bacterial cell





Answer: C

What is the most likely pathway taken by a newly synthesized protein that will be secreted by a cell?

What is the most likely pathway taken by a newly synthesized protein that will be secreted by a cell? 

A) ER ? Golgi ? nucleus
B) Golgi ?ER ?lysosome
C) nucleus ?ER ?Golgi
D) ER ?Golgi ?vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane
E) ER ?lysosomes ?vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane





Answer: D

Cyanide binds with at least one molecule involved in producing ATP. If a cell is exposed to cyanide, most of the cyanide will be found within the

Cyanide binds with at least one molecule involved in producing ATP. If a cell is exposed to cyanide, most of the cyanide will be found within the 

A) mitochondria.
B) ribosomes.
C) peroxisomes.
D) lysosomes.
E) endoplasmic reticulum.






Answer: A

Which structure-function pair is mismatched?

Which structure-function pair is mismatched? 

A) nucleolus; production of ribosomal subunits
B) lysosome; intracellular digestion
C) ribosome; protein synthesis
D) Golgi; protein trafficking
E) microtubule; muscle contraction






Answer: E

Which of the following is present in a prokaryotic cell?

Which of the following is present in a prokaryotic cell? 

A) mitochondrion
B) ribosome
C) nuclear envelope
D) chloroplast
E) ER





Answer: B

Which structure is common to plant and animal cells?

Which structure is common to plant and animal cells? 

A) chloroplast
B) wall made of cellulose
C) central vacuole
D) mitochondrion
E) centriole






Answer: D

Which structure is not part of the endomembrane system?

Which structure is not part of the endomembrane system? 

A) nuclear envelope
B) chloroplast
C) Golgi apparatus
D) plasma membrane
E) ER






Answer: B

A biologist ground up some plant leaf cells and then centrifuged the mixture to fractionate the organelles. Organelles in one of the heavier fractions could produce ATP in the light, whereas organelles in the lighter fraction could produce ATP in the dark. The heavier and lighter fractions are most likely to contain, respectively,

A biologist ground up some plant leaf cells and then centrifuged the mixture to fractionate the organelles. Organelles in one of the heavier fractions could produce ATP in the light, whereas organelles in the lighter fraction could produce ATP in the dark. The heavier and lighter fractions are most likely to contain, respectively, 

A) mitochondria and chloroplasts.
B) chloroplasts and peroxisomes.
C) peroxisomes and chloroplasts.
D) chloroplasts and mitochondria.
E) mitochondria and peroxisomes.




Answer: D

A newspaper ad for a local toy store indicates that a very inexpensive microscope available for a small child is able to magnify specimens nearly as much as the much more costly microscope available in your college lab. What is the primary reason for the price difference?

A newspaper ad for a local toy store indicates that a very inexpensive microscope available for a small child is able to magnify specimens nearly as much as the much more costly microscope available in your college lab. What is the primary reason for the price difference? 

A) The ad agency is misrepresenting the ability of the toy microscope to magnify.
B) The toy microscope does not have the same fine control for focus of the specimen.
C) The toy microscope magnifies a good deal, but has low resolution and therefore poor quality images.
D) The college microscope produces greater contrast in the specimens.
E) The toy microscope usually uses a different wavelength of light source.







Answer: C

A biologist wants specifically to examine the surfaces of different types of cells in kidney tubules of small mammals. The cells in question can be distinguished by external shape, size, and 3-D characteristics. Which of the following would be the optimum method for her study?

A biologist wants specifically to examine the surfaces of different types of cells in kidney tubules of small mammals. The cells in question can be distinguished by external shape, size, and 3-D characteristics. Which of the following would be the optimum method for her study?

A) transmission electron microscopy
B) cell fractionation
C) light microscopy using stains specific to kidney function
D) light microscopy of living unstained material
E) scanning electron microscopy




Answer: E

What types of proteins are not synthesized in the rough ER?

What types of proteins are not synthesized in the rough ER? 

A) endoplasmic reticulum proteins
B) extracellular matrix proteins
C) secreted proteins
D) mitochondrial proteins
E) plasma membrane proteins






Answer: D

ECM proteins are made by ribosomes in which part of a eukaryotic cell?

ECM proteins are made by ribosomes in which part of a eukaryotic cell? 

A) mitochondria
B) cytoplasm
C) nuclear envelope
D) Golgi apparatus
E) rough ER





Answer: E

Signals between the ECM and the cytoskeleton may be transmitted by

Signals between the ECM and the cytoskeleton may be transmitted by 

A) fibronectin.
B) proteoglycans.
C) integrins.
D) collagen.
E) middle lamella.







Answer: C

Recent evidence shows that signals from the extracellular matrix (ECM) can regulate the expression of genes in the cell nucleus. A likely mechanism is that

Recent evidence shows that signals from the extracellular matrix (ECM) can regulate the expression of genes in the cell nucleus. A likely mechanism is that 

A) mechanical signals of the ECM can alter the cytoskeleton, which can alter intracellular signaling.
B) intracellular signals might cause changes in the fibronectin binding to the cell surface.
C) orientation of microtubules to the ECM can change gene activity.
D) integrins that receive signals from the ECM migrate to the nucleus.
E) proteoglycans in the ECM undergo endocytosis and produce intracellular signaling molecules.






Answer: A

Which of the following makes it necessary for animal cells, although they have no cell walls, to have intercellular junctions?

Which of the following makes it necessary for animal cells, although they have no cell walls, to have intercellular junctions? 

A) Cell membranes do not distinguish the types of ions and molecules passing through them.
B) Large molecules, such as proteins and RNA molecules, do not readily get through one, much less two, adjacent cell membranes.
C) Cell-to-cell communication requires physical attachment of one cell to another.
D) Maintenance of tissue integrity and barriers to fluid leakage requires cells to adhere tightly to one another.
E) The relative shapelessness of animal cells requires a mechanism for keeping the cells aligned.







Answer: D

Ions can travel directly from the cytoplasm of one animal cell to the cytoplasm of an adjacent cell through

Ions can travel directly from the cytoplasm of one animal cell to the cytoplasm of an adjacent cell through 

A) plasmodesmata.
B) intermediate filaments.
C) tight junctions.
D) desmosomes.
E) gap junctions.





Answer: E

Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to which of the following structures in animal cells?

Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to which of the following structures in animal cells? 

A) peroxisomes
B) desmosomes
C) gap junctions
D) extracellular matrix
E) tight junctions






Answer: C

The extracellular matrix is thought to participate in the regulation of animal cell behavior by communicating information from the outside to the inside of the cell via which of the following?

The extracellular matrix is thought to participate in the regulation of animal cell behavior by communicating information from the outside to the inside of the cell via which of the following? 

A) gap junctions
B) the nucleus
C) DNA and RNA
D) integrins
E) plasmodesmata







Answer: D

A mutation that disrupts the ability of an animal cell to add polysaccharide modifications to proteins would most likely cause defects in its

A mutation that disrupts the ability of an animal cell to add polysaccharide modifications to proteins would most likely cause defects in its 

A) nuclear lamina and nuclear matrix.
B) nuclear matrix and extracellular matrix.
C) mitochondria and Golgi apparatus.
D) Golgi apparatus and extracellular matrix.
E) nuclear pores and secretory vesicles.






Answer: D

When a potassium ion (K+) moves from the soil into the vacuole of a cell on the surface of a root, it must pass through several cellular structures. Which of the following correctly describes the order in which these structures will be encountered by the ion?

When a potassium ion (K+) moves from the soil into the vacuole of a cell on the surface of a root, it must pass through several cellular structures. Which of the following correctly describes the order in which these structures will be encountered by the ion? 

A) plasma membrane ? primary cell wall ? cytoplasm ? vacuole
B) secondary cell wall ? plasma membrane ? primary cell wall ? cytoplasm ? vacuole
C) primary cell wall ? plasma membrane ? cytoplasm ? vacuole
D) primary cell wall ? plasma membrane ? lysosome ? cytoplasm ? vacuole
E) primary cell wall ? plasma membrane ? cytoplasm ? secondary cell wall ? vacuole






Answer: C

The cell walls of bacteria, fungi, and plant cells and the extracellular matrix of animal cells are all external to the plasma membrane. Which of the following is a characteristic common to all of these extracellular structures?

The cell walls of bacteria, fungi, and plant cells and the extracellular matrix of animal cells are all external to the plasma membrane. Which of the following is a characteristic common to all of these extracellular structures? 

A) They must block water and small molecules in order to regulate the exchange of matter and energy with their environment.
B) They must permit information transfer between the cell's cytoplasm and the nucleus.
C) They must provide a rigid structure that maintains an appropriate ratio of cell surface area to volume.
D) They are constructed of polymers that are synthesized in the cytoplasm and then transported out of the cell.
E) They are composed of a mixture of lipids and carbohydrates.






Answer: D

What do the cell walls of plants and the extracellular matrix of animal cells have in common?

What do the cell walls of plants and the extracellular matrix of animal cells have in common? 

A) They are largely composed of phospholipids and glycoproteins.
B) Their proteins are made by free cytoplasmic ribosomes.
C) They form rigid structures that provide structural support for cells but limit their expansion.
D) They limit the passage of small molecules.
E) They have functional connections with the cytoskeleton inside the cell.







Answer: E

All of the following serve an important role in determining or maintaining the structure of plant cells. Which of the following are distinct from the others in their composition?

All of the following serve an important role in determining or maintaining the structure of plant cells. Which of the following are distinct from the others in their composition? 

A) microtubules
B) microfilaments
C) plant cell walls
D) intermediate filaments
E) nuclear lamina






Answer: C

Cells require which of the following to form cilia or flagella?

Cells require which of the following to form cilia or flagella? 

A) centrosomes
B) laminin
C) actin
D) intermediate filaments
E) secretory vesicles






Answer: A

Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton is true?

Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton is true? 

A) The dynamic aspect of cytoskeletal function is made possible by the assembly and disassembly of a large variety of proteins into complex aggregates.
B) Microfilaments are structurally rigid and resist compression, whereas microtubules resist tension (stretching).
C) Movement of cilia and flagella is the result of motor proteins causing microtubules to move relative to each other.
D) Chemicals that block the assembly of the cytoskeleton would cause little effect on the cell's response to external signals and stimuli.
E) Transport vesicles among the membranes of the endomembrane system produce the cytoskeleton.







Answer: C

Cytochalasin D is a drug that prevents actin polymerization. A cell treated with cytochalasin D will still be able to

Cytochalasin D is a drug that prevents actin polymerization. A cell treated with cytochalasin D will still be able to 

A) perform amoeboid movement.
B) form cleavage furrows.
C) contract muscle fibers.
D) extend pseudopodia.
E) move vesicles around the cell.






Answer: E

If an individual has abnormal microtubules, due to a hereditary condition, in which organs or tissues would you expect dysfunction?

If an individual has abnormal microtubules, due to a hereditary condition, in which organs or tissues would you expect dysfunction? 

A) limbs, hearts, areas with a good deal of contraction
B) microvilli, alveoli, and glomeruli: cellular projections that increase surface area
C) all ducts, such as those from salivary or sebaceous glands, that transport fluids
D) sperm, larynx, and trachea: cells and tissues that contain flagella or cilia
E) phagocytic cells and white blood cells that exhibit amoeboid movement






Answer: D

Centrioles, cilia, flagella, and basal bodies have remarkably similar structural elements and arrangements. Which of the following hypotheses is most plausible in light of such structural similarities?

Centrioles, cilia, flagella, and basal bodies have remarkably similar structural elements and arrangements. Which of the following hypotheses is most plausible in light of such structural similarities? 

A) Cilia and flagella arise from the centrioles.
B) Loss of basal bodies should lead to loss of all cilia, flagella, and centrioles.
C) Motor proteins such as dynein must have evolved before any of these four kinds of structure.
D) Cilia and flagella coevolved in the same ancestral eukaryotic organism.
E) Natural selection for cell motility repeatedly selected for microtubular arrays in circular patterns in the evolution of each of these structures.





Answer: A

Vinblastine, a drug that inhibits microtubule polymerization, is used to treat some forms of cancer. Cancer cells given vinblastine would be unable to

Vinblastine, a drug that inhibits microtubule polymerization, is used to treat some forms of cancer. Cancer cells given vinblastine would be unable to 

A) form cleavage furrows during cell division.
B) migrate by amoeboid movement.
C) separate chromosomes during cell division.
D) extend pseudopods.
E) maintain the shape of the nucleus.






Answer: C

Which of the following contain the 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules, consisting of nine doublets of microtubules surrounding a pair of single microtubules?

Which of the following contain the 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules, consisting of nine doublets of microtubules surrounding a pair of single microtubules? 

A) both motile cilia and primary (nonmotile) cilia
B) centrioles only
C) both flagella and motile cilia
D) both basal bodies and primary (nonmotile) cilia
E) both centrioles and basal bodies







Answer: C

The smallest cell structure that would most likely be visible with a standard (not super-resolution) research-grade light microscope is

The smallest cell structure that would most likely be visible with a standard (not super-resolution) research-grade light microscope is 

A) a mitochondrion.
B) a microtubule.
C) a ribosome.
D) a microfilament.
E) a nuclear pore.






Answer: A

Movement of vesicles within the cell depends on what cellular structures?

Movement of vesicles within the cell depends on what cellular structures? 

A) microtubules and motor proteins
B) actin filaments and microtubules
C) actin filaments and ribosomes
D) centrioles and motor proteins
E) actin filaments and motor proteins







Answer: A

Motor proteins provide for molecular motion in cells by interacting with what types of cellular structures?

Motor proteins provide for molecular motion in cells by interacting with what types of cellular structures? 

A) sites of energy production in cellular respiration
B) membrane proteins
C) ribosomes
D) cytoskeletal structures
E) cellulose fibers in the cell wall






Answer: D

How does the cell multiply its peroxisomes?

How does the cell multiply its peroxisomes? 

A) They bud off from the Golgi.
B) They are brought into the cell from the environment.
C) They are built de novo from cytosol materials.
D) They split in two after they become sufficiently large.
E) The cell synthesizes hydrogen peroxide and encloses it in a membrane.






Answer: D

In a liver cell detoxifying alcohol and some other poisons, the enzymes of the peroxisome remove hydrogen from these molecules and

In a liver cell detoxifying alcohol and some other poisons, the enzymes of the peroxisome remove hydrogen from these molecules and 

A) combine the hydrogen with water molecules to generate hydrogen peroxide.
B) use the hydrogen to break down hydrogen peroxide.
C) transfer the hydrogen to the mitochondria.
D) transfer the hydrogen to oxygen molecules to generate hydrogen peroxide.







Answer: D

Why isn't the mitochondrion classified as part of the endomembrane system?

Why isn't the mitochondrion classified as part of the endomembrane system? 

A) It is a static structure.
B) Its structure is not derived from the ER or Golgi.
C) It has too many vesicles.
D) It is not involved in protein synthesis.
E) It is not attached to the outer nuclear envelope.







Answer: B

Which type of organelle is found in plant cells but not in animal cells?

Which type of organelle is found in plant cells but not in animal cells? 

A) ribosomes
B) mitochondria
C) nuclei
D) plastids
E) none of these







Answer: D

A cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, and mitochondria. It could be a cell from

A cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, and mitochondria. It could be a cell from 

A) a bacterium.
B) an animal, but not a plant.
C) nearly any eukaryotic organism.
D) any multicellular organism, like a plant or an animal.
E) any kind of organism.






Answer: C

One of the key innovations in the evolution of eukaryotes from a prokaryotic ancestor is the endomembrane system. What eukaryotic organelles or features might have evolved as a part of, or as an elaboration of, the endomembrane system?

One of the key innovations in the evolution of eukaryotes from a prokaryotic ancestor is the endomembrane system. What eukaryotic organelles or features might have evolved as a part of, or as an elaboration of, the endomembrane system? 

A) plasma membrane
B) chloroplasts
C) mitochondria
D) nuclear envelope
E) none of these






Answer: D

The chemical reactions involved in respiration are virtually identical between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. In eukaryotic cells, ATP is synthesized primarily on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. In light of the endosymbiont theory for the evolutionary origin of mitochondria, where is most ATP synthesis likely to occur in prokaryotic cells?

The chemical reactions involved in respiration are virtually identical between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. In eukaryotic cells, ATP is synthesized primarily on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. In light of the endosymbiont theory for the evolutionary origin of mitochondria, where is most ATP synthesis likely to occur in prokaryotic cells? 

A) in the cytoplasm
B) on the inner mitochondrial membrane
C) on the endoplasmic reticulum
D) on the plasma membrane
E) on the inner nuclear envelope







Answer: D

In a plant cell, DNA may be found

In a plant cell, DNA may be found 

A) only in the nucleus.
B) only in the nucleus and mitochondria.
C) only in the nucleus and chloroplasts.
D) in the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts.
E) in the nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts, and peroxisomes.





Answer: D

Thylakoids, DNA, and ribosomes are all components found in

Thylakoids, DNA, and ribosomes are all components found in 

A) vacuoles.
B) chloroplasts.
C) mitochondria.
D) lysosomes.
E) nuclei.






Answer: B

Which animal cell organelle contains enzymes that transfer hydrogen from various substrates to oxygen?

Which animal cell organelle contains enzymes that transfer hydrogen from various substrates to oxygen? 

A) lysosome
B) vacuole
C) mitochondrion
D) Golgi apparatus
E) peroxisome






Answer: E

Which plant cell organelle contains its own DNA and ribosomes?

Which plant cell organelle contains its own DNA and ribosomes? 

A) glyoxysome
B) vacuole
C) mitochondrion
D) Golgi apparatus
E) peroxisome






Answer: C

Which organelle is the primary site of ATP synthesis in eukaryotic cells?

Which organelle is the primary site of ATP synthesis in eukaryotic cells? 

A) lysosome
B) vacuole
C) mitochondrion
D) Golgi apparatus
E) peroxisome







Answer: C

How many structural isomers are possible for a substance having the molecular formula C4H10?

How many structural isomers are possible for a substance having the molecular formula C4H10? 

A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 3
E) 11






Answer: B

Why are hydrocarbons insoluble in water?

Why are hydrocarbons insoluble in water? 

A) The majority of their bonds are polar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages.
B) The majority of their bonds are nonpolar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages.
C) They are hydrophilic.
D) They exhibit considerable molecular complexity and diversity.
E) They are lighter than water.






Answer: B

Which of the following statements best describes the carbon atoms present in a seed-eating bird?

Which of the following statements best describes the carbon atoms present in a seed-eating bird? 

A) Inorganic carbon atoms in the seeds were incorporated into organic molecules by the bird.
B) The carbon atoms ultimately came from the soil.
C) The carbon atoms are ultimately derived from coal.
D) The carbon atoms ultimately came from carbon dioxide incorporated into sugars through photosynthesis.
E) The carbon atoms ultimately came from simple organic compounds that formed abiotically from inorganic carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen atoms.





Answer: D

Which of the following statements best describes the carbon atoms present in a seed-eating bird?

Which of the following statements best describes the carbon atoms present in a seed-eating bird? 

A) They were incorporated into organic molecules by plants.
B) They were processed into sugars through photosynthesis.
C) They are ultimately derived from carbon dioxide.
D) They were incorporated into organic molecules by plants, and they are ultimately derived from carbon dioxide.
E) They were incorporated into organic molecules by plants, they were processed into sugars through photosynthesis, and they are ultimately derived from carbon dioxide.





Answer: E

A carbon atom is most likely to form what kind of bond(s) with other atoms?

A carbon atom is most likely to form what kind of bond(s) with other atoms? 

A) ionic
B) hydrogen
C) covalent
D) covalent bonds and hydrogen bonds
E) ionic bonds, covalent bonds, and hydrogen bonds







Answer: C

How many electron pairs does carbon share in order to complete its valence shell?

How many electron pairs does carbon share in order to complete its valence shell? 

A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
E) 8





Answer: D

When Stanley Miller applied heat and electrical sparks to a mixture of simple inorganic compounds such as methane, hydrogen gas, ammonia, and water vapor, what compounds were produced?

When Stanley Miller applied heat and electrical sparks to a mixture of simple inorganic compounds such as methane, hydrogen gas, ammonia, and water vapor, what compounds were produced? 

A) mostly amino acids
B) only simple organic compounds such as formaldehyde and cyanide
C) mostly hydrocarbons
D) only simple inorganic compounds
E) both simple organic compounds and more complex organic compounds such as amino acids and hydrocarbons






Answer: E

Stanley Miller's 1953 experiments assumed that early Earth's atmosphere contained

Stanley Miller's 1953 experiments assumed that early Earth's atmosphere contained 

A) hydrogen cyanide, formaldehyde, hydrogen gas, and water vapor.
B) ammonia, methane, hydrogen gas, and water vapor.
C) ammonia, methane, oxygen gas, and water vapor.
D) amino acids, methane, hydrogen cyanide, and water vapor.
E) methane, formaldehyde, ammonia, and carbon dioxide.







Answer: B

Hermann Kolbe's synthesis of an organic compound, acetic acid, from inorganic substances that had been prepared directly from pure elements was a significant milestone for what reason?

Hermann Kolbe's synthesis of an organic compound, acetic acid, from inorganic substances that had been prepared directly from pure elements was a significant milestone for what reason? 

A) It solved an industrial shortage of acetic acid.
B) It proved that organic compounds could be synthesized from inorganic compounds.
C) It disproved the concept of vitalism.
D) It showed that life originated from simple inorganic chemicals.
E) It proved that organic compounds could be synthesized from inorganic compounds and disproved the concept of vitalism.






Answer: E

Stanley Miller's 1953 experiments proved that

Stanley Miller's 1953 experiments proved that 

A) life arose on Earth from simple inorganic molecules.
B) organic molecules can be synthesized abiotically under conditions that may have existed on early Earth.
C) life arose on Earth from simple organic molecules, with energy from lightning and volcanoes.
D) the conditions on early Earth were conducive to the origin of life.
E) the conditions on early Earth were conducive to the abiotic synthesis of organic molecules.







Answer: B

Which of the following people was the first to synthesize an organic compound, urea, from inorganic starting materials?

Which of the following people was the first to synthesize an organic compound, urea, from inorganic starting materials?

A) Stanley Miller
B) Jakob Berzelius
C) Friedrich Wohler
D) Hermann Kolbe
E) August Kekulé






Answer: C

Differences among organisms are caused by

Differences among organisms are caused by 

A) large differences in elemental composition from organism to organism.
B) differences in the types and relative amounts of organic molecules synthesized by each organism.
C) differences in the elements that bond with carbon in each organism.
D) differences in the sizes of the organic molecules in each organism.
E) differences in inorganic compounds present in each organism.





Answer: B

The experimental approach taken in current biological investigations presumes that

The experimental approach taken in current biological investigations presumes that 

A) simple organic compounds can be synthesized in the laboratory from inorganic precursors, but complex organic compounds like carbohydrates and proteins can only be synthesized by living organisms.
B) a life force ultimately controls the activities of living organisms and this life force cannot be studied by physical or chemical methods.
C) although a life force, or vitalism, exists in living organisms, this life force cannot be studied by physical or chemical methods.
D) living organisms are composed of the same elements present in nonliving things, plus a few special trace elements found only in living organisms or their products.
E) living organisms can be understood in terms of the same physical and chemical laws that can be used to explain all natural phenomena.






Answer: E

The complexity and variety of organic molecules is due to

The complexity and variety of organic molecules is due to 

A) the chemical versatility of carbon atoms.
B) the variety of rare elements in organic molecules.
C) the fact that they can be synthesized only in living organisms.
D) their interaction with water.
E) their tremendously large sizes.






Answer: A

The element present in all organic molecules is

The element present in all organic molecules is 

A) hydrogen.
B) oxygen.
C) carbon.
D) nitrogen.
E) phosphorus.





Answer: C

How many grams of acetic acid (C2H4O2) would you use to make 10 L of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of acetic acid? (Note: The atomic masses, in daltons, are approximately 12 for carbon, 1 for hydrogen, and 16 for oxygen.)

How many grams of acetic acid (C2H4O2) would you use to make 10 L of a 0.1 M aqueous solution of acetic acid? (Note: The atomic masses, in daltons, are approximately 12 for carbon, 1 for hydrogen, and 16 for oxygen.) 

A) 10 g
B) 0.1 g
C) 6.0 g
D) 60 g
E) 0.6 g






Answer: D

A slice of pizza has 500 kcal. If we could burn the pizza and use all the heat to warm a 50-L container of cold water, what would be the approximate increase in the temperature of the water? (Note: A liter of cold water weighs about 1 kg.)

A slice of pizza has 500 kcal. If we could burn the pizza and use all the heat to warm a 50-L container of cold water, what would be the approximate increase in the temperature of the water? (Note: A liter of cold water weighs about 1 kg.) 

A) 50°C
B) 5°C
C) 1°C
D) 100°C
E) 10°C






Answer: E

Measurements show that the pH of a particular lake is 4.0. What is the hydroxide ion concentration of the lake?

Measurements show that the pH of a particular lake is 4.0. What is the hydroxide ion concentration of the lake? 

A) 10?¹° M
B) 10?4 M
C) 10?7 M
D) 10?¹4 M
E) 10 M






Answer: A

Measurements show that the pH of a particular lake is 4.0. What is the hydrogen ion concentration of the lake?

Measurements show that the pH of a particular lake is 4.0. What is the hydrogen ion concentration of the lake? 

A) 4.0 M
B) 10?¹° M
C) 10?4 M
D) 104 M
E) 4%





Answer: C

We can be sure that a mole of table sugar and a mole of vitamin C are equal in their

We can be sure that a mole of table sugar and a mole of vitamin C are equal in their 

A) mass in daltons.
B) mass in grams.
C) volume.
D) number of atoms.
E) number of molecules.






Answer: E

Which of the following is a hydrophobic material?

Which of the following is a hydrophobic material? 

A) paper
B) table salt
C) wax
D) sugar
E) pasta





Answer: C

The bonds that are broken when water vaporizes are

The bonds that are broken when water vaporizes are 

A) ionic bonds.
B) hydrogen bonds between water molecules.
C) covalent bonds between atoms within water molecules.
D) polar covalent bonds.
E) nonpolar covalent bonds.





Answer: B

Many mammals control their body temperature by sweating. Which property of water is most directly responsible for the ability of sweat to lower body temperature?

Many mammals control their body temperature by sweating. Which property of water is most directly responsible for the ability of sweat to lower body temperature? 

A) water's change in density when it condenses
B) water's ability to dissolve molecules in the air
C) the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds
D) the absorption of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds
E) water's high surface tension






Answer: D

You have two beakers. One contains a solution of HCl at pH = 1.0. The other contains a solution of NaOH at pH = 13. Into a third beaker, you slowly and cautiously pour 20 mL of the HCl and 20 mL of the NaOH. After complete stirring, the pH of the mixture will be

You have two beakers. One contains a solution of HCl at pH = 1.0. The other contains a solution of NaOH at pH = 13. Into a third beaker, you slowly and cautiously pour 20 mL of the HCl and 20 mL of the NaOH. After complete stirring, the pH of the mixture will be 

A) 2.0.
B) 12.0.
C) 7.0.
D) 5.0.
E) 9.0.







Answer: C

You have two beakers. One contains pure water, the other contains pure methanol (wood alcohol). The covalent bonds of methanol molecules are nonpolar, so there are no hydrogen bonds among methanol molecules. You pour crystals of table salt (NaCl) into each beaker. Predict what will happen.

You have two beakers. One contains pure water, the other contains pure methanol (wood alcohol). The covalent bonds of methanol molecules are nonpolar, so there are no hydrogen bonds among methanol molecules. You pour crystals of table salt (NaCl) into each beaker. Predict what will happen. 

A) Equal amounts of NaCl crystals will dissolve in both water and methanol.
B) NaCl crystals will NOT dissolve in either water or methanol.
C) NaCl crystals will dissolve readily in water but will not dissolve in methanol.
D) NaCl crystals will dissolve readily in methanol but will not dissolve in water.
E) When the first crystals of NaCl are added to water or to methanol, they will not dissolve; but as more crystals are added, the crystals will begin to dissolve faster and faster.






Answer: C

A small birthday candle is weighed, then lighted and placed beneath a metal can containing 100 mL of water. Careful records are kept as the temperature of the water rises. Data from this experiment are shown on the graph. What amount of heat energy is released in the burning of candle wax?

A small birthday candle is weighed, then lighted and placed beneath a metal can containing 100 mL of water. Careful records are kept as the temperature of the water rises. Data from this experiment are shown on the graph. What amount of heat energy is released in the burning of candle wax?

A) 0.5 kilocalories per gram of wax burned
B) 5 kilocalories per gram of wax burned
C) 10 kilocalories per gram of wax burned
D) 20 kilocalories per gram of wax burned
E) 50 kilocalories per gram of wax burned






Answer: A

How many grams of the compound in the figure above would be required to make 2.5 L of a 1 M solution? (carbon = 12, oxygen = 16, hydrogen = 1)

How many grams of the compound in the figure above would be required to make 2.5 L of a 1 M solution?
(carbon = 12, oxygen = 16, hydrogen = 1) 

A) 29
B) 30
C) 60
D) 150
E) 342






Answer: D

How many grams of the compound in the figure above would be required to make 1 L of a 0.5 M solution? (carbon = 12, oxygen = 16, hydrogen = 1)

How many grams of the compound in the figure above would be required to make 1 L of a 0.5 M solution?
(carbon = 12, oxygen = 16, hydrogen = 1) 

A) 29
B) 30
C) 60
D) 150
E) 342






Answer: B

How many grams would be equal to 1 mol of the compound shown in the figure above? (carbon = 12, oxygen = 16, hydrogen = 1)

How many grams would be equal to 1 mol of the compound shown in the figure above?
(carbon = 12, oxygen = 16, hydrogen = 1) 

A) 29
B) 30
C) 60
D) 150
E) 342





Answer: C

Based on your knowledge of the polarity of water molecules, the solute molecule depicted here is most likely

Based on your knowledge of the polarity of water molecules, the solute molecule depicted here is most likely 

A) positively charged.
B) negatively charged.
C) without charge.
D) hydrophobic.
E) nonpolar.






Answer: A

If the cytoplasm of a cell is at pH 7, and the mitochondrial matrix is at pH 8, this means that

If the cytoplasm of a cell is at pH 7, and the mitochondrial matrix is at pH 8, this means that 

A) the concentration of H? ions is tenfold higher in the cytoplasm than in the mitochondrial matrix.
B) the concentration of H? ions is tenfold higher in the mitochondrial matrix than in the cytoplasm.
C) the concentration of H? ions in the cytoplasm is 7/8 the concentration in the mitochondrial matrix.
D) the mitochondrial matrix is more acidic than the cytoplasm.
E) the concentration of H? ions in the cytoplasm is 8/7 the concentration in the mitochondrial matrix.





Answer: A

One idea to mitigate the effects of burning fossil fuels on atmospheric CO2 concentrations is to pipe liquid CO2 into the ocean at depths of 2,500 feet or greater. At the high pressures at such depths, CO2 is heavier than water. What potential effects might result from implementing such a scheme?

One idea to mitigate the effects of burning fossil fuels on atmospheric CO2 concentrations is to pipe liquid CO2 into the ocean at depths of 2,500 feet or greater. At the high pressures at such depths, CO2 is heavier than water. What potential effects might result from implementing such a scheme? 

A) increased photosynthetic carbon fixation because of the increased dissolved carbon dioxide in the deep water
B) increased carbonate concentrations in the deep waters
C) reduced growth of corals from a change in the carbonate—bicarbonate equilibrium
D) no effect because carbon dioxide is not soluble in water
E) both increased acidity of the deep waters and changes in the growth of bottom-dwelling organisms with calcium carbonate shells







Answer: E

How would acidification of seawater affect marine organisms?

How would acidification of seawater affect marine organisms? 

A) Acidification would increase dissolved carbonate concentrations and promote faster growth of corals and shell-building animals.
B) Acidification would decrease dissolved carbonate concentrations and promote faster growth of corals and shell-building animals.
C) Acidification would increase dissolved carbonate concentrations and hinder growth of corals and shell-building animals.
D) Acidification would decrease dissolved carbonate concentrations and hinder growth of corals and shell-building animals.
E) Acidification would increase dissolved bicarbonate concentrations, and cause increased calcification of corals and shellfish.






Answer: D

Increased atmospheric CO2 concentrations might have what effect on seawater?

Increased atmospheric CO2 concentrations might have what effect on seawater? 

A) Seawater will become more acidic, and bicarbonate concentrations will decrease.
B) Seawater will become more alkaline, and carbonate concentrations will decrease.
C) There will be no change in the pH of seawater, because carbonate will turn to bicarbonate.
D) Seawater will become more acidic, and carbonate concentrations will decrease.
E) Seawater will become more acidic, and carbonate concentrations will increase.





Answer: D

Equal volumes (5 mL) of vinegar from a freshly opened bottle are added to each of the following solutions. After complete mixing, which of the mixtures will have the highest pH?

Equal volumes (5 mL) of vinegar from a freshly opened bottle are added to each of the following solutions. After complete mixing, which of the mixtures will have the highest pH? 

A) 100 mL of pure water
B) 100 mL of freshly brewed coffee
C) 100 mL of household cleanser containing 0.5 M ammonia
D) 100 mL of freshly squeezed orange juice
E) 100 mL of tomato juice






Answer: C

A beaker contains 100 mL of NaOH solution at pH = 13. A technician carefully pours into the beaker 10 mL of HCl at pH = 1. Which of the following statements correctly describes the results of this mixing?

A beaker contains 100 mL of NaOH solution at pH = 13. A technician carefully pours into the beaker 10 mL of HCl at pH = 1. Which of the following statements correctly describes the results of this mixing? 

A) The concentration of Na? ion rises.
B) The concentration of Cl? ion will be 0.1 M.
C) The concentration of undissociated H2O molecules remains unchanged.
D) The pH of the beaker's contents will be neutral.
E) The pH of the beaker's contents falls.






Answer: E

Carbon dioxide (CO2) is readily soluble in water, according to the equation CO2 + H2O ? H2CO3. Carbonic acid (H2CO3) is a weak acid. Respiring cells release CO2 into the bloodstream. What will be the effect on pH of blood as that blood first comes in contact with respiring cells?

Carbon dioxide (CO2) is readily soluble in water, according to the equation CO2 + H2O ? H2CO3. Carbonic acid (H2CO3) is a weak acid. Respiring cells release CO2 into the bloodstream. What will be the effect on pH of blood as that blood first comes in contact with respiring cells? 

A) Blood pH will decrease slightly.
B) Blood pH will increase slightly.
C) Blood pH will remain unchanged.
D) Blood pH will first increase, then decrease as CO2 combines with hemoglobin.
E) Blood pH will first decrease, then increase sharply as CO2 combines with hemoglobin.








Answer: A

If a solution has a pH of 7, this means that

If a solution has a pH of 7, this means that 

A) there are no H? ions in the water.
B) this is a solution of pure water.
C) the concentration of H? ions in the water equals the concentration of OH? ions in the water.
D) this is a solution of pure water, and the concentration of H? ions in the water is 10?7 M.
E) this is a solution of pure water, and the concentration of H? ions equals the concentration of OH? ions in the water.






Answer: C

Consider two solutions: solution X has a pH of 4; solution Y has a pH of 7. From this information, we can reasonably conclude that

Consider two solutions: solution X has a pH of 4; solution Y has a pH of 7. From this information, we can reasonably conclude that 

A) solution Y has no free hydrogen ions (H?).
B) the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X is 30 times as great as the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution Y.
C) the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution Y is 1,000 times as great as the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X.
D) the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X is 3 times as great as the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution Y.
E) the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution X is 1,000 times as great as the concentration of hydrogen ions in solution Y.






Answer: E

Research indicates that acid precipitation can damage living organisms by

Research indicates that acid precipitation can damage living organisms by 

A) buffering aquatic systems such as lakes and streams.
B) decreasing the H? concentration of lakes and streams.
C) increasing the OH? concentration of lakes and streams.
D) washing away certain mineral ions that help buffer soil solution and are essential nutrients for plant growth.
E) both decreasing the H? concentration of lakes and streams and increasing the OH? concentration of lakes and streams.







Answer: D

Assume that acid rain has lowered the pH of a particular lake to pH 4.0. What is the hydroxyl ion concentration of this lake?

Assume that acid rain has lowered the pH of a particular lake to pH 4.0. What is the hydroxyl ion concentration of this lake? 

A) 1 × 10?¹° mol of hydroxyl ion per liter of lake water
B) 1 × 10?4 mol of hydroxyl ion per liter of lake water
C) 10.0 M with regard to hydroxyl ion concentration
D) 4.0 M with regard to hydroxyl ion concentration
E) 1 × 10?4 mol of hydroxyl ion per liter of lake water and 4.0 M with regard to hydrogen ion concentration






Answer: A

One of the buffers that contribute to pH stability in human blood is carbonic acid (H2CO3). Carbonic acid is a weak acid that, when placed in an aqueous solution, dissociates into a bicarbonate ion (HCO3? and a hydrogen ion (H?). Thus, H2CO3 ? HCO3? + H? If the pH of the blood increases, one would expect

One of the buffers that contribute to pH stability in human blood is carbonic acid (H2CO3). Carbonic acid is a weak acid that, when placed in an aqueous solution, dissociates into a bicarbonate ion (HCO3? and a hydrogen ion (H?). Thus,
H2CO3 ? HCO3? + H?
If the pH of the blood increases, one would expect 

A) a decrease in the concentration of H2CO3 and an increase in the concentration of HCO3?.
B) an increase in the concentration of H2CO3 and a decrease in the concentration of HCO3?.
C) a decrease in the concentration of HCO3? and an increase in the concentration of H?.
D) an increase in the concentration of HCO3? and a decrease in the concentration of OH?.
E) a decrease in the concentration of HCO3? and an increase in the concentration of both HH2CO3 and H?.





Answer: A

One of the buffers that contribute to pH stability in human blood is carbonic acid (H2CO3). Carbonic acid is a weak acid that dissociates into a bicarbonate ion (HCO3?) and a hydrogen ion (H?). Thus, H2CO3 ? HCO3? + H? If the pH of the blood drops, one would expect

One of the buffers that contribute to pH stability in human blood is carbonic acid (H2CO3). Carbonic acid is a weak acid that dissociates into a bicarbonate ion (HCO3?) and a hydrogen ion (H?). Thus,
H2CO3 ? HCO3? + H?
If the pH of the blood drops, one would expect 

A) a decrease in the concentration of H2CO3 and an increase in the concentration of HCO3?.
B) the concentration of hydroxide ion (OH?) to increase.
C) the concentration of bicarbonate ion (HCO3?) to increase.
D) the HCO3? to act as a base and remove excess H? with the formation of H2CO3.
E) the HCO3? to act as an acid and remove excess H? with the formation of H2CO3.







Answer: D

Buffers are substances that help resist shifts in pH by

Buffers are substances that help resist shifts in pH by 

A) releasing H? to a solution when acids are added.
B) donating H? to a solution when bases are added.
C) releasing OH? to a solution when bases are added.
D) accepting H? from a solution when acids are added.
E) both donating H? to a solution when bases are added, and accepting H? when acids are added.







Answer: E

Which of the following statements is true about buffer solutions?

Which of the following statements is true about buffer solutions? 

A) They maintain a constant pH when bases are added to them but not when acids are added to them.
B) They maintain a constant pH when acids are added to them but not when bases are added to them.
C) They maintain a relatively constant pH of approximately 7 when either acids or bases are added to them.
D) They maintain a relatively constant pH when either acids or bases are added to them.
E) They are found only in living systems and biological fluids.








Answer: D

One liter of a solution of pH 9 has how many more hydroxyl ions (OH?) than 1 L of a solution of pH 4?

One liter of a solution of pH 9 has how many more hydroxyl ions (OH?) than 1 L of a solution of pH 4? 

A) 5 times more
B) 32 times more
C) 50,000 times more
D) 10,000 times more
E) 100,000 times more






Answer: E

One liter of a solution of pH 2 has how many more hydrogen ions (H?) than 1 L of a solution of pH 6?

One liter of a solution of pH 2 has how many more hydrogen ions (H?) than 1 L of a solution of pH 6? 

A) 4 times more
B) 16 times more
C) 40,000 times more
D) 10,000 times more
E) 100,000 times more








Answer: D

If the pH of a solution is increased from pH 5 to pH 7, it means that the

If the pH of a solution is increased from pH 5 to pH 7, it means that the 

A) concentration of H? is twice (2X) what it was at pH 5.
B) concentration of H? is one-half (1/2) what it was at pH 5.
C) concentration of OH? is 100 times greater than what it was at pH 5.
D) concentration of OH? is one-hundredth (0.01X) what it was at pH 5.
E) concentration of H? is 100 times greater and the concentration of OH? is one-hundredth what they were at pH 5.






Answer: C

If the pH of a solution is decreased from 9 to 8, it means that the

If the pH of a solution is decreased from 9 to 8, it means that the 

A) concentration of H? has decreased to one-tenth (1/10) what it was at pH 9.
B) concentration of H? has increased tenfold (10X) compared to what it was at pH 9.
C) concentration of OH? has increased tenfold (10X) compared to what it was at pH 9.
D) concentration of OH? has decreased to one-tenth (1/10) what it was at pH 9.
E) concentration of H? has increased tenfold (10X) and the concentration of OH? has decreased to one-tenth (1/10) what they were at pH 9.







Answer: E

What is the hydrogen ion [H?] concentration of a solution of pH 8?

What is the hydrogen ion [H?] concentration of a solution of pH 8? 

A) 8 M
B) 8 x 10?6 M
C) 0.01 M
D) 10?8 M
E) 10?6 M






Answer: D

Which of the following solutions would require the greatest amount of base to be added to bring the solution to neutral pH?

Which of the following solutions would require the greatest amount of base to be added to bring the solution to neutral pH? 

A) gastric juice at pH 2
B) vinegar at pH 3
C) tomato juice at pH 4
D) black coffee at pH 5
E) household bleach at pH 12







Answer: A